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Post by Big Andy on Sept 2, 2013 6:08:40 GMT -7
I've searched this forum up and down and haven't been able to get a straight answer to this question. I currently have all of my effects in front of my amp (Maz 18 NR). I'd like to try moving a couple of the time-based effects to the effects loop. This amp's effects loop is not buffered. I have long cable runs, so I need to make sure I've got low impedance in my effects loop. So here's my question asked in two different ways.
If the input going into the amp is buffered, does this in-turn make the effects loop buffered?
If I'm running a buffer in front of the amp, will I need another one in the FX loop?
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Post by Mark (Basement Enthusiast) on Sept 2, 2013 11:57:16 GMT -7
No, running a buffer in front will not buffer the FX loop. You'd need another buffer in the loop...
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Post by Big Andy on Sept 2, 2013 12:54:39 GMT -7
Thanks, Mark!
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Post by justthedad on Sept 12, 2022 19:32:00 GMT -7
Reviving this to ask: Do I only need a buffer at the send end of the pedals in my Maz18 mk2's effects loop, since the return of the effects loop is buffered? and If I put my TC Sentry on buffered bypass using the 4 cable method, will that work as the send buffer for the effects loop since it's return and output will be the first pedal in the effects loop? Thanks.
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Post by Mark (Basement Enthusiast) on Sept 13, 2022 6:52:42 GMT -7
Yes, it would seem to me that if the Return side of the loop is buffered, then at most you might want a buffer immediately after the Send.
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Post by justthedad on Sept 15, 2022 6:36:49 GMT -7
Thanks
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